Name a tort for which there must be an intent to harm?

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1096318

2026-04-14 17:30

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There is no "Intent to Harm" embodied in civil law. If there was an intent, the charge would be being made under the criminal statutes.

Negligent acts (i.e.: unthinking or unintended) are prosecutable under civil law.

Yes there are. For example, there is the intentional tort of embezzlement. Which can be a crime AND a tort. Knowledge ahead of time of libel; knowing what the outcome will be before you commit the libel etc....

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