Is it possible for a fourth degree function to have an inverse that is a function?

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Answer

1138837

2026-05-04 14:45

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In order for a fourth degree function to have an inverse function, its domain must be restricted. Otherwise the inverse function will not pass the vertical-line test.

Ex.

f(x) = x^4 (x>0), the original function

f-1(x) = x ^ (1/4), the inverse

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