What was the two reasons the author used to explain why appeasement was the logical policy at that time?

The author argues that appeasement was a logical policy at the time due to the desire to maintain peace in a war-weary Europe and the belief that the grievances of aggressive nations, like Germany, could be addressed through negotiation rather than conflict. Additionally, there was a strong sentiment among many leaders that the military capabilities of their countries were insufficient to confront the rising threats effectively, making concessions seem like a necessary alternative to avoid immediate war.