Yes, ( x - 4 ) is equivalent to ( 2(x - 2) ). To show this, we can simplify ( 2(x - 2) ): ( 2(x - 2) = 2x - 4 ). Therefore, the two expressions are not equivalent since ( x - 4 ) does not equal ( 2x - 4 ) unless ( x = 0 ).
Copyright © 2026 eLLeNow.com All Rights Reserved.