Is x-4 equivalent to 2(x-2)

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1110819

2026-02-09 17:25

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Yes, ( x - 4 ) is equivalent to ( 2(x - 2) ). To show this, we can simplify ( 2(x - 2) ): ( 2(x - 2) = 2x - 4 ). Therefore, the two expressions are not equivalent since ( x - 4 ) does not equal ( 2x - 4 ) unless ( x = 0 ).

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