If a simple machine could be fricionless how would its IMA and AMA compare?

If a simple machine were frictionless, its Ideal Mechanical Advantage (IMA) would be equal to its Actual Mechanical Advantage (AMA). This is because IMA is calculated based on the machine's geometry and assumes no energy losses, while AMA accounts for real-world efficiencies, including friction. In the absence of friction, there would be no energy loss, making IMA and AMA identical. Thus, in a frictionless scenario, both values would be the same.