If you have medical bills from 1998-2000 that the collection agency or hospital turned over to an attorney now there is a judgment against you to garnish your wages is this legal after all this time?

If your husband has a judgment against him, that means a lawsuit was filed and he either lost the lawsuit or didn't respond and was defaulted. Wage garnishments are perfectly legal so long as they are done with with accordance with the laws of your state. The length of the wage garnishment depends on the law of your state. Have a Few more questions, We are looking into buying a house, if we do, could they take it? Judgment is for $3,500 or so medical bills from 1998-2000. Also, after reading several answers to questions, can they take away either our vehicles? They are both titled in his name/ IF we retitle them in my name will that prevent from getting them taken away? Will they try to come after me for the money since we are married, I am a stay at home mom of 3 kids under 6yrs old.How long will it stay on his credit & will it affect mine, was filed approx. 2years ago & have yet to "garnish wages" as approved to do so. And lastly, if we file chapter 7 bankruptcy will this or could this be included? Any help would be much appriciated! And thankyou in advance!!! All states have a set of exemptions that are used to prevent creditor action against personal and real property. In most cases the homestead exemption will protect a primary residence against seizure and forced sale but will not keep a lien from being placed. What property a judgment can be executed against not only depends upon the exemptions allowed but whether or not a married couple reside in a community property state and how the property is titled. Such laws apply to vehicles and bank accounts as well as to a home or other real estate. Using the time frame cited it is likely the creditor filed the suit within the SOL requirements, although in many states an SOL will not apply to medical bills or other debts deemed as "necessary" (which surpasses common sense, but it is the law). It is considered a "fraudulent conveyance" to transfer ownership of any property, (such as a vehicle title) after a judgment has been rendered and should not be attempted. The issue of vehicles being seized is problematic as only one vehicle can be protected by the state's vehicle exemption. (macky83@juno.com)